AIIMS Senior Nursing Officer Question Paper 2023 and Answer

AIIMS Jodhpur senior Nursing Officer Question Paper

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AIIMS Senior Nursing Officer	Details
Organisation Name	AIIMS Jodhpur
Exam Name	Senior Nursing Officer
Process	Computer Based Test
Job Location	Jodhpur
Official Site	https://www.aiimsjodhpur.edu.in/
Category	Question Paper ans Answe

AIIMS Senior Nursing Officer Exam Pattern

• Negative Marking – There will be negative marking of 1/3 marks for each wrong answer.
• The qualifying marks in Recruitment Examination will be 50% for UR/ EWS, 45% for OBC and 40% for SC & ST.
• The questions will be of Multiple Choice Questions.

Papers – Details

1) Kindly note down question ID of each question which is mentioned in right side of the question to raise your objection.

कृपया प्रत्येक सवाल का सवाल आईडी नीचे नोट करें जो कि आपके आपत्ति को दर्ज करने के लिए प्रश्न के दाईं ओर वर्णित है।

2) Before raising objection, check the question and answers carefully.

आपत्ति दर्ज करने से पहले सवाल और जवाबों की सावधानीपूर्वक जाँच करें।

3) In the question paper view, the correct answer is marked by a green tick mark next to the option question paper

में, विकल्प के आगे हरे रंग का सही का निशान लगाकर सही उत्तर चिह्नित किया जाता है।

4) The status of the question - whether you answered it or not, is also mentioned the right of the question

प्रश्न की स्थिति - चाहे आपने इसका उत्तर दिया हो या नहीं, भी प्रश्न के दाएं उल्लिखित होती है।

5)The option you chose during the exam is shown to the right of the question

परीक्षा के दौरान आपके द्वारा चयनित विकल्प प्रश्न के दाएं दिखाया जाता है।

I shall abide by all final decisions of AIIMS, Jodhpur. I declare, that I have read all the above instructions carefully and I am ready to proceed further.

एम्स जोधपुर द्वारा सभी निर्णय मुझे मान्य होंगे । मैं घोषित करता/करती हूँ, मैंने उपरोक्त सभी निर्देशों को ध्यान से पढ़ा है और मैं आगे बढ़ने के लिए तैयार हूँ ।

Section : Senior Nursing Officer (Staff Nurse Grade -1)

Q.1	A patient was brought to the emergency ward with numbness and weakness on one side of his body, slurred speech, difficulty in walking and dizziness. After taking a CT scan, the doctor diagnosed it as an embolic stroke. Which of the following conditions places the client at the risk of a thromboembolic stroke?

Ans	1. Bradycardia
	2. Multiple sclerosis
	3. Atrial fibrillation
	4. Guillain-Barré syndrome

Q.2	A short-term goal for a patient with Alzheimer's disease is:

Ans	1. improved functioning in the least restrictive environment
	2. regained sensory perception and cognitive function
	3. improved problem solving in activities of daily living
	4. increased self-esteem and improved self-concept

Q.3	A nurse is going to administer ear drops to a 30-year-old patient suffering from otitis media. The most appropriate method to administer the ear drops to this patient is by:

Ans	1. pulling the pinna down and back
	2. pulling the tragus up and back
	3. separating the palpebral fissures with a clean gauze pad
	4. pulling the pinna up and back

Q.4	The optimal target for patients with diabetes mellitus is maintaining a glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) at:

Ans	1. below 9%
	2. above 6.5%
	3. below 6.5%
	4. above 9%

Q.5	A 30-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department. On examination, the triage nurse noticed that his respiratory rate was 36/ minute, and he had a non-productive cough. History also revealed that he recently had a cold. After lung auscultation and analysis of examination findings, she suspected the probability of asthma. Which of the following lung auscultation findings suggested that he may have bronchial asthma?

Ans	1. Pleural friction rub
	2. Inspiratory and expiratory wheezes
	3. Low-pitched murmurs
	4. Pericardial friction rub

Q.6	A patient was presented to the paediatric OPD with fever, malaise, coryza, cough and conjunctivitis. There were small red spots with a bluish-white centre and a red base located on the buccal mucosa and nurses documented this finding. What are these spots called and what are the spots indicative of?

Ans	1. Brush field spots; measles
	2. Koplik’s spots; measles
	3. Koplik's spots; diphtheria
	4. Bull neck spots; diphtheria

Q.7	What is the best position for a patient in anaphylactic shock?

Ans	1. Semi fowler’s
	2. Lateral recumbent
	3. High fowler’s
	4. Supine with legs elevated

Q.8

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.9

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.10	The nurse is preparing for the physical examination of a newly admitted client. The assessment tray should contain all the following, EXCEPT:

Ans	1. fundoscope
	2. sphygmomanometer
	3. thermometer
	4. stethoscope

Q.11	A leader can be effective in one circumstance and can be ineffective in another circumstance. This is a leader’s ability to adapt, which can be their most important tool in the workplace. This theory of leadership is known as:

Ans	1. contingency
	2. strategic
	3. autocratic
	4. democratic

Q.12	During discharge teaching, a patient with depression, the psychiatric nurse informed him to avoid foods containing tyramine – such as cheese, milk, wine, preserved meats and avocados – to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Which class of antidepressant drugs prescribing to the patient?

Ans	1. Tricyclic antidepressants
	2. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
	3. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
	4. Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

Q.13	A nurse posted in a paediatric cardiology unit noted that the assessment findings of an infant reveal a continuous machinery murmur on the auscultation of the heart and signs of heart failure. She identifies that the infant has which of the following congenital cardiac defects?

Ans	1. Atrial septal defect
	2. Ventricular septal defect
	3. Patent ductus arteriosus
	4. Aortic stenosis

Q.14	A problem-based learning is student centred learning strategy in which students collaboratively solve the problems and this reflects on their experience. One important component is:

Ans	1. flexible approaches to learning
	2. focus of the educational program
	3. presentation of real-world situation or problem from ordinary life
	4. careful inspection of methods

Q.15	Patient X came to the emergency department with a history of road traffic accidents. The triage nurse assessed the patient and shifted him to the Red area. During the assessment, she found that the patient had fractured a segment sinking into the chest with inspiration and expanding of the chest wall with expiration, opposite the normal chest wall mechanics. Which of the following abnormalities would have been noted by the nurse and what would this abnormality indicate?

Ans	1. Barrel chest; Rib fracture
	2. Pectus excavatum; Chest trauma
	3. Flail chest; Rib fracture
	4. Pectus carinatum; Chest trauma

Q.16	A client has an infection spreading through droplets. The nurse is ready to check the client’s temperature. Which of the following should the nurse use to control the spread of infection?

Ans	1. Gloves
	2. Gown
	3. Goggles
	4. Mask

Q.17

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.18	Regarding the placement of leads when recording ECG all of the following are correct, EXCEPT:

Ans	1. V4 - 7th intercostal space at the mid clavicular line
	2. V3 - linear midpoint between V2 and V4
	3. V2 - 4th intercostal space - left margin of sternum
	4. V1 - 4th intercostal space - right margin of sternum

Q.19	Which of the following types of research involves at least some control by the researcher to implement the study treatment?

Ans	1. Quasi-experimental
	2. Descriptive
	3. Experimental
	4. Correlational

Q.20	A nurse posted in the paediatric ward was doing a dehydration assessment for a child admitted with complaints of diarrhoea. The nurse noted that the child was unconscious, and he had sunken eyes, skin pinch going back very slowly. Also, the child was not able to drink fluids. Based on these observations, what should the nurse categorise this dehydration as?

Ans	1. No dehydration
	2. Severe dehydration
	3. Mild dehydration
	4. Moderate dehydration

Q.21	The blood groups in individuals are different due to the specific:

Ans	1. antibodies on the surface of RBCs
	2. antigens on the surface of RBCs
	3. antigens on the surface of WBCs
	4. antibodies on the surface of WBCs

Q.22	A client is admitted with acid attack burns on his face and eyes. The nurse understands that the client has great risk for which of the following complications?

Ans	1. Bacterial infections
	2. Development of glaucoma
	3. Long-term morbidity
	4. Contracture

Q.23	A 54-year-old man presented in the emergency department with polyphagia and polydipsia. He also complained of headaches, malaise and some visual changes. The assessment showed signs of dehydration and some additional symptoms. The nurse reported to the physician that the patient may have diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following additional symptoms might the nurse have noted?

Ans	1. Kussmaul respirations and fruity odour on the breath
	2. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
	3. Biot respirations and severe abdominal pain
	4. Cheyne-stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Q.24	The nurse manager needs to buy six new hospital beds for the unit. What type of budget will be used for this expenditure?

Ans	1. Operating budget
	2. Capital budget
	3. Salary budget
	4. Revenue budget

Q.25	The kidneys are located ________ on the posterior abdominal region.

Ans	1. infra peritoneally
	2. supra peritoneally
	3. in peritoneal cavity
	4. retroperitoneally

Q.26	A nurse working in a ward notices that blood has spilled on the floor during blood collection. The spill covers an area of more than 20 cm. The nurse asked the housekeeping staff to clean the spill on the floor. What would the recommended disinfectant used for handling this spill be?

Ans	1. 1 : 2 dilution of 2% bleach solution
	2. 1 : 10 dilution of 5% of sodium hypochlorite
	3. 1 : 100 dilution of 5% sodium hypochlorite
	4. 1 : 5 dilution of 5% bleach solution

Q.27	A nurse posted in the postnatal ward is going around assessing patients. The nurse should anticipate that postpartum women with _______ will need Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) before discharge.

Ans	1. an Rh-negative primigravida with an Rh-positive infant
	2. an Rh-positive primigravida with an Rh-negative infant
	3. an Rh-positive primigravida with an Rh-positive infant
	4. an Rh-negative primigravida with an Rh-negative infant

Q.28	Following a road accident, a patient was admitted to the neurosurgery ICU due to a head injury. During the assessment, the patient opens his eyes to painful stimuli but not to verbal stimuli. He answers questions by making incomprehensible sounds and localises the site of the painful stimulus. His GCS score will be:

Ans	1. 7
	2. 6
	3. 9
	4. 8

Q.29	Which of the following is an important principle of delegation?

Ans	1. Delegation is the same as work allocation
	2. When delegating, you must transfer authority
	3. Responsibility is not transferred with delegation
	4. No transfer of authority exists when delegating

Q.30

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.31

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.32

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.33	In India, unsafe drinking water and lack of basic sanitation are the leading causes for:

Ans	1. diarrhoeal diseases and cholera
	2. respiratory problems
	3. heart disease and diabetes
	4. asthma

Q.34	A shortened PR interval, slurring (called a delta wave) of the initial QRS deflection, and prolonged QRS duration are characteristics of:

Ans	1. atrial tachycardia
	2. myocardial ischemia
	3. Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome
	4. left bundle branch block

Q.35	Glomerulonephritis is a kidney disorder that affects the glomeruli. It is usually characterised by oedema, hypertension and:

Ans	1. haematuria
	2. polydipsia
	3. dysuria
	4. WBC in urine

Q.36	Which of the following is a stage in the stages of change model?

Ans	1. Meditation
	2. Deliberation
	3. Contemplation
	4. Study

Q.37	To use a t-test, the dependent variable must have:

Ans	1. nominal or interval data
	2. ordinal or ratio data
	3. interval or ratio data
	4. ordinal or interval data

Q.38	A nurse is headed to work with her friend on a bus. Suddenly, she notices blood coming from her friend's nose. What is the first line of management that the nurse can use in this situation?

Ans	1. Pinch the nose and move forward
	2. Pinch the nose with sterile gauze
	3. Pinch the nose and move backwards
	4. Do not touch the nose and immediately go to the hospital

Q.39	The down's syndrome is a congenital chromosome abnormality and is also known as:

Ans	1. Trisomy 20
	2. Trisomy 21
	3. Trisomy 18
	4. Trisomy 31

Q.40	On physical examination of a patient’s chest, a nurse observed a ‘barrel chest’. A barrel chest is usually associated with:

Ans	1. emphysema
	2. Marfan syndrome
	3. kyphoscoliosis
	4. rickets

Q.41	The primary fever in malaria corresponding to the development of the parasites in the red blood cells comprise all of the following EXCEPT:

Ans	1. cold stage
	2. sweating stage
	3. hot stage
	4. relapse stage

Q.42

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.43	The T wave in ECG represents:

Ans	1. total time for ventricular depolarisation
	2. time needed for sinus node stimulation
	3. repolarisation of Purkinje fibres
	4. ventricular repolarisation

Q.44	The first drug of choice to treat an anaphylactic reaction is:

Ans	1. corticosteroids
	2. epinephrine
	3. bronchodilator
	4. antihistamines

Q.45	The ideal time when the nurse asks the patient to bear down during second stage of labour is:

Ans	1. When the patient feels strong
	2. When the fetal head starts to distend the perineum
	3. When the cervix is fully dilated
	4. In between the contractions

Q.46

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.47

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.48	According to the Bio-medical Waste Management of India, Category 1 of waste, including human anatomical waste, should be disposed by:

Ans	1. disinfection by chemical treatment
	2. incineration
	3. local autoclaving
	4. disposal in municipal landfill

Q.49

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.50	A group of subcortical nuclei within the brain called basal ganglia helps a person perform which of the following important functions?

Ans	1. Unconditional learning
	2. Involuntary motor activity
	3. Emotional behaviours
	4. Learning impairment

Q.51

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.52

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.53	Benzimidazole used in treatment of parasitic infections is:

Ans	1. a broad-spectrum antibiotic
	2. a broad-spectrum anthelmintics
	3. None of the given option
	4. an antifungal drug

Q.54	Children with down's syndrome have what is known as brachycephaly. This means that the shape of the back of the head is:

Ans	1. flattened
	2. rounded
	3. pointed
	4. pyramidal

Q.55

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.56	What is the function of mRNA?

Ans	1. Carries message for protein synthesis
	2. Helps form the ribosomes
	3. Escorts amino acid to ribosome
	4. Bonds with new strand

Q.57

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.58	The leadership style adopted to make crucial decisions that need to be made on the spot, when dealing with inexperienced and new team members and there’s no time to wait for team members to gain familiarity with their role, is known as:

Ans	1. coaching
	2. democratic
	3. participatory
	4. authoritative

Q.59	A normal man marries a woman with colour blindness. Their children would be:

Ans	1. colour blind sons and carrier daughters
	2. colour blind daughters and carrier sons
	3. normal sons and carrier daughters
	4. normal daughters and normal sons

Q.60	An example of inductive reasoning is:

Ans	1. using a computerised nursing care plan to care for insulin-dependent diabetic patients
	2. using a standard nursing care plan to care for a specific patient
	3. reasoning from all chronically ill patients to a single chronically ill patient
	4. reasoning from a single diabetic patient to all diabetic patients

Q.61	A nurse is posted in the paediatric immunisation clinic. She notices a child who is very active. He is climbing stairs in the playroom, walking forward and turning pages in a book. Based on these observations, what may be the approximate age of the child?

Ans	1. 10-12 months
	2. 6-9 months
	3. 18-24 months
	4. 8-10 months

Q.62

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.63	Beta-thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder. It is characterised by reduced haemoglobin levels in the body and is also known as:

Ans	1. haemolytic anaemia
	2. Cooley’s anaemia
	3. sickle cell anaemia
	4. aplastic anaemia

Q.64	The part of the colon that absorbs the remaining water and other key nutrients from the indigestible material, solidifying it to form stool is:

Ans	1. ascending colon
	2. rectum
	3. transverse colon
	4. descending colon

Q.65	Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to portal vein?

Ans	1. Portal blood comes from the gastrointestinal system.
	2. Portal blood is rich in oxygen.
	3. Portal blood is rich in nutrients.
	4. Portal circulation constitutes 80% of the circulation to the liver.

Q.66	Low molecular weight heparin should be administered:

Ans	1. subcutaneously
	2. intravenously
	3. intramuscularly
	4. intradermally

Q.67	If the calculated Chi square value in hypothesis testing is greater than the critical Chi value, then:

Ans	1. do nothing
	2. reject null hypothesis
	3. estimate again
	4. do not reject null hypothesis

Q.68	When ventilation exceeds perfusion, it leads to which of the following?

Ans	1. Pneumothorax
	2. Dead space
	3. Shunt
	4. Silent unit

Q.69	The misunderstanding or misinterpretation of the meaning which restricts effective communication is known as:

Ans	1. physical barrier
	2. emotional barrier
	3. cultural barrier
	4. semantic barrier

Q.70	A nurse plans to teach a postpartum mother the prevention of breast engorgement. Which of the following measures would the nurse include in her teaching plan?

Ans	1. Use nipple shields while feeding the neonate
	2. Massage the breast vigorously before feeding
	3. Breastfeed the neonate at regular intervals
	4. Decrease the intake of fluid during the first 24 to 48 hours

Q.71

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.72	The main features of the rural community are that the rural community is closely associated with:

Ans	1. remote from nature
	2. work in closed environment
	3. work in different occupations and contact is less between members
	4. direct effect of natural elements like rains, drought, heat, on their lives

Q.73	Which type of coping strategy is most effective during a stressful circumstance that cannot be changed?

Ans	1. Emotion focused coping
	2. Coping flexibility
	3. Problem focused coping
	4. Avoidance

Q.74	While doing bedside rounds, a nurse posted in the paediatric urology ward saw a 5-year-old child. On being asked about the child’s medical history, the child’s mother said that the child had recently had a streptococcal throat infection. She also reported periorbital and facial oedema, decreased urine output and haematuria. The child’s blood pressure was 156/98 mm of Hg and lab investigations showed increased blood urea nitrogen level and creatinine level and increased anti-streptolysin O titer. Based on these inputs, what may be the probable diagnosis of the child?

Ans	1. Glomerulonephritis
	2. Polycystic kidney disease
	3. Haemolytic uremic syndrome
	4. Nephrotic syndrome

Q.75	Suppose you were a nurse who was posted in the Covid-19 screening area where RT-PCR testing was conducted. Which transport media was used in the transport tube of Covid-19 swabs?

Ans	1. VTM
	2. RAT
	3. VVM
	4. PCR

Q.76	At the Central level, the Union Ministry of Health and Welfare is headed by a Cabinet Minister, a Minister of State and a Deputy Health Minister. These are political appointments and have a dual role to serve political as well as administrative responsibilities for health. One of the functions in the Union List is:

Ans	1. regulation and development of medical, nursing and other allied health professions
	2. to organise family welfare programme through family welfare centres
	3. International health relations and quarantine
	4. prevention of extension of communicable diseases from one unit to another

Q.77	While recording the weight of a 2-year-old boy on the WHO growth chart, a nurse notes that the weight curve is below -2 SD. The nurse interprets this as:

Ans	1. normal weight for his age
	2. overweight for his age
	3. under nutrition
	4. severely underweight

Q.78	Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is the ratio of deaths under 1 year of age to:

Ans	1. a rate per 10 live births
	2. a rate per 10,000 live births
	3. a rate per 100 live births
	4. a rate per 1000 live births

Q.79	According to WHO, the most cost-effective way to stop the spread of TB in communities with a high incidence is by curing it. The best curative method for TB is known as DOTS. One of its components is:

Ans	1. standardised treatment regimen directly of eighteen months observed by a healthcare worker
	2. case detection by sputum smear microscopy
	3. health for All by 2000 AD
	4. patients will buy the drugs

Q.80	_______ is an example of secondary prevention.

Ans	1. Screening and case finding
	2. Proper disposal of garbage
	3. Treatment of the disease and rehabilitation
	4. Encouraging physical exercise

Q.81	Which of the following tarsal bones is most commonly fractured?

Ans	1. Calcaneus
	2. Cuboid bone
	3. Talus
	4. Navicular bone

Q.82

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.
	Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full Marks is being awarded to all candidates.

Q.83	During a home visit by a community health nurse, a middle-aged woman reported to the nurse that she has had weakness, fatigue, dyspnoea and headache for the past three months. On physical examination, the nurse noted spoon-shaped fingernails and a heart rate of 120/minute. Based on these findings, the nurse documented that the woman may have ________.

Ans	1. Aplastic anaemia
	2. Folic acid deficiency anaemia
	3. Haemolytic anaemia
	4. Iron deficiency anaemia

Q.84	A terminally ill 70 years old lady has fears of being alone and constantly wants someone near her. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be most appropriate to deal with her loneliness?

Ans	1. Plan to spend more time with her holding her hands and listening to her
	2. Put on the Television in her room and ask her to watch some programs
	3. Place her near the window so that she can see nature
	4. Explain to her that she has to keep her mind active and focused

Q.85	All of the following are local manifestations of inflammation EXCEPT:

Ans	1. increased WBC count
	2. warmth
	3. pain
	4. redness

Q.86	Doctors and nurses, who are in direct contact with patients and their relatives, have opportunities for much individual health education. What is the biggest advantage of individual health education?

Ans	1. It can be costly and time consuming.
	2. We can discuss, argue and persuade the individual to change his behaviour.
	3. It is very useful in reaching large number of people.
	4. It depends upon the personality and reputation of the speaker.

Q.87	Hospital information systems (HIS) is introduced in a hospital to support tasks like patient care and administration of a hospital. The nurses are expected to have a cultural lag which can overcome by which of the following?

Ans	1. The organisation should recruit new nurses who are trained in HIS.
	2. The organisation should leave the nurses to learn or not learn HIS.
	3. The organisation should invest in equipment and training the nurses.
	4. The organisation should refine policies to force the nurses to adapt to the change.

Q.88

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.89	The nurse manager compares the actual results of the budget with the projected results of the budget. What budgeting process is this?

Ans	1. Revenue sharing
	2. Variable budgeting
	3. Incremental budgeting
	4. Controlling

Q.90	A physician has prescribed Tab Atenolol 25 mg for a patient. On assessment the nurse finds that the patient's systolic blood pressure is 90 mmHg. The appropriate nursing action would be:

Ans	1. administer the drug and continue monitoring the blood pressure
	2. advice the patient to increase sodium intake
	3. withhold the drug and notify the prescriber
	4. monitor serum potassium levels

Q.91	A client is admitted to the ward at 4 pm. She is posted for haemorrhoidectomy the next day morning. The nurse is expected to record the assessment of her vital signs. Before checking the blood pressure, the most important principle the nurse has to follow is:

Ans	1. prepare the equipment and supplies
	2. wash hands
	3. position the client
	4. explain the procedure to the client

Q.92	When an antigen is mixed with its corresponding antibody at a suitable pH and temperature, antigen-antibody reaction causes clumping of particles together. This reaction is known as:

Ans	1. immunofluorescence
	2. agglutination reaction
	3. complement fixation
	4. precipitation reaction

Q.93	CDC recommends children get two doses of MMR vaccine, starting with the first dose at 12 through 15 months of age, and the second dose at:

Ans	1. 2-3years of age
	2. 4-6 years of age
	3. 6-8 years of age
	4. 10-12 years of age

Q.94	The main objective of National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme in India is:

Ans	1. development of guidelines on control
	2. behaviour Change Communication
	3. supply of iodised salt in place of common salt
	4. early detection of iodine deficiency

Q.95	There are various techniques that are used to preserve foods and prevent foods from spoiling. Which of the following is the most common and best method?

Ans	1. Freezing
	2. Fermentation
	3. Heating
	4. Freeze drying

Q.96

Ans	1.
	2.
	3.
	4.

Q.97	A probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean, showing that the data near the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the data far from the mean, is known as:

Ans	1. skewed distribution
	2. binominal distribution
	3. Poisson distribution
	4. normal distribution

Q.98	The leakage of blood backwards through the mitral valve each time the left ventricle of the heart contracts, is known as:

Ans	1. mitral systole
	2. mitral regurgitation
	3. mitral prolapse
	4. mitral stenosis

Q.99	A tumour of the Adrenal medulla (Pheochromocytoma) is associated with an increased production of which hormone?

Ans	1. Glucocorticoids
	2. Androgen
	3. Epinephrine
	4. Mineralocorticoids

Q.100	Epigenic factors play an important role in schizophrenia. In genetically vulnerable people, environmental factors may increase the risk and trigger schizophrenia. Which of the following statements is true?

Ans	1. Living in poverty does not increase the risk of schizophrenia.
	2. People living in rural areas are more vulnerable.
	3. Childhood trauma such as poverty or abuse can trigger schizophrenia.
	4. Social companionship increases the risk of schizophrenia.

AIIMS Senior Nursing Officer Question Paper 2023 and Answer

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